There is some confusion regarding the day that Jesus was crucified during the Passover week, and the actual day He was resurrected. The confusion is a matter of a language barrier between English perception and the Greek of the New Testament which was customarily understood in the first century A.D. We need to study very carefully how words were used 2,000 years ago, instead of assuming that a casual reading of the scriptures in English translates perfectly.
The Passover feast was celebrated beginning on 14 Nisan of the Jewish calendar (our April), which was the evening before the feast of unleavened bread. That year, when Jesus was crucified, 14 Nisan was on a Thursday. The lambs for private celebration at the homes of each family were killed and prepared on 14 Nisan, Thursday. Then, the lambs for the public altar were killed the following day, 15th Nisan, which fell on Friday that year, on Preparation day. In the Greek, “paraskeue”.
Friday was always called Preparation Day, “paraskeue”, as it was the day before the Sabbath. In fact that term, “paraskeue”, is still being used today in the Mediterranean areas to mean Friday. So Preparation day of Passover as is stated in John 19:14 is the Friday of the week of Passover celebration.
“ and it was the preparation of the passover, and as it were the sixth hour, and he saith to the Jews, `Lo, your king!’ “ John 19:14, Young’s. or,
“And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!” John 19:14, KJV
In English, where adjectives and descriptive words are used in front of the nouns, we might think this means the preparation before the passover. But look at in the NIV. It translated better here. (All bold emp. is mine.)
“ It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon. “Here is your king,” Pilate said to the Jews.” and also from the RSV, ” Now it was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about the sixth hour. He said to the Jews, “Behold your King!”
The meaning here is easier to see. Preparation day – Friday – of the Passover week. And is confirmed by verse 31, ” Since it was the day of Preparation, in order to prevent the bodies from remaining on the cross on the sabbath (for that sabbath was a high day), the Jews asked Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away” (RSV)
As the Jews counted the sunrise to sunset, approximately 6 am to 6 pm, as the day time hours, and sunset to sunset as the full day, then 15th of Nisan, or that Friday began at sunset on the Thursday evening that had been 14 Nisan. You have to think with a Jewish clock when relating hours of the day that are recorded in the scriptures. So 6th hour of the “day” was the same as our “noon”.
Jesus was crucified on Friday, and that is confirmed by Mark 15:42, Matt. 27:62; and Luke 23:54.
Mark 15:42, “And now evening having come, seeing it was the preparation, that is, the fore-sabbath,” (Young’s). The fore-sabbath was Friday. and again , “ It was Preparation Day (that is, the day before the Sabbath). So as evening approached,” ( NIV), and once more, “And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath,” (KJV).
The feast of unleavened bread would last for 7 days, which were frequently referred together as the Passover. The first Passover meal occurred on the evening of 14 Nisan, which was a Thursday that year. But, the meals taken throughout the next 7 days were also called Passover meals.
So, Jesus was arrested after having taken the Passover meal with the disciples on Thursday evening, which turned into 15 Nisan after sunset, the Jewish Preparation day, or our Friday. He was crucified at about the sixth hour (noon, our time) and died about 3 hours later (3 pm our time) on 15 Nisan, the same day that the lambs were slain for the public sacrifice of the Passover for all of the people. He was the Passover Lamb, the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world for all people. (Rev. 13:8)
Jesus was resurrected on Sunday, on day 3 after the crucifixion. It was not a full 72 hours. It was the morning of day 3. Sunset of 15 Nisan to sunset of 16 Nisan, past the sunrise on 17 Nisan, which was our Sunday, the Lord’s Day. Shown clearly in Mark 16:1,2 –
“1And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him. 2 And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.” (KJV)
“1 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Mag′dalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salo′me, bought spices, so that they might go and anoint him. 2 And very early on the first day of the week they went to the tomb when the sun had risen” (RSV).
“1When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices so that they might go to anoint Jesus’ body. 2 Very early on the first day of the week, just after sunrise, they were on their way to the tomb” (NIV)
See a more complete discussion here: http://www.apologeticspress.org/APContent.aspx?category=6&article=5059
We have called Sunday the Lord’s Day after the tradition of the Apostles. The Apostles were given the authority to bind and loose, that is set and establish patterns and practices for the church of the Lord. Paul instructs the Christians at Corinth to do the same as he instructed those at Galatia, to lay by in store on the first day of the week. (1Cor 16:1-2). The implication is that they would take up the collection when they met for worship on the Lord’s Day, the first day of the week.
It is recorded in Acts 20:7 that the disciples met on the first day of the week to break bread in remembrance of Christ’s death. It is a memorial, a remembrance. And, unlike the Catholics who have turned the remembrance into a ceremonial rite they call the Eucharist, it is not demanded that it be done every first day of the week. It is just customary as that is what the disciples did.
Paul routinely went to the non-Christian Jews where they gathered at their synagogues on their Sabbath days in order to teach so that he could reach out to those lost souls, and spread the gospel. He was still working under God’s command to preach the gospel throughout the lands. Christians followed the disciples’ practice of breaking the bread, and meeting on the first day of the week in celebration of their new life in Christ.
Ignatius noted in a letter believed to be written around 110 A.D. that Christians were no longer observing the Sabbath, but were meeting on the first day of the week, on the Lord’s Day. Justin Martyr mentioned in his First Apology, written approx. 150 A.D. that Christians were gathering on the first day of the week to read the letters of the Apostles, and to eat the bread and drink the wine. These were comments recording existing Christian observances and patterns. They were not commands of the Roman Catholic Church.
However, the Roman Catholic Church under Constantine added to the confusion in their Nicaea Council held 325 A.D. Canon 20 issued at the Council of Nicaea discussed the practice of kneeling while praying on the Lord’s Day.
“Forasmuch as there are certain persons who kneel on the Lord’s Day and in the days of Pentecost, therefore, to the intent that all things may be uniformly observed everywhere (in every parish), it seems good to the holy Synod that prayer be made to God standing.”
But, In spite of what some claim, I don’t find any command by the Catholic Church to change the day of worship from Saturday to Sunday. What I do find is that the sun-god idolater, Constantine, renamed the days.
” However, Constantine was willing to allow his favored pagan deity to be called Jesus — giving a Christian veneer to his idol-worship, as we shall see below. To further cement this, as Constantine clearly wanted his Sun-God worshipped under the name of Jesus, Constantine at Nicea exalted Jesus’s nature from Son of Man with Divinity abiding into an independent-mind who is God the son of a Father who was also God just as Sol Invictus was portrayed. Constantine also transformed the sabbath rest of Christians from Sabbath to Sun-day — the day of worship of Sol Invictus – the day of the Invincible Sun. It was not to honor the Lord’s Day, but to honor Sol Invictus on his day of Sun-day because in Constantine’s pagan beliefs Jesus was the Sun-god Baal aka Sol Invictus.” further…
“This was also the first use of a seven-day week in the Roman calendar. (Journal of Calendar Reform (September 1953) at 128 fn.) The first day of the week, and most important, was Sun-Day in honor of Sol Invictus/Baal. The six other days were all names of planets. The seventh day of the week – called Saturday (not Sabbath-day) — represented the planet Saturn which is furthest from the Sun and likewise on the calendar was day seven — the furthest day from Sun-Day — day one. (Arthur Weigall, Paganism in our Christianity (Kessinger, 2003)
The pagan names of the seven days aimed to erase Sabbath and the Lord’s Day by Constantine. They were resisted by most of the Western world. For example, in Western European romance languages, Sabbath is still the name for Saturn’s Day which Constantine tried to impose instead as its name. Also, in the same nations, Sun-Day is typically still called “The Lord’s Day.” A strenuous battle must have been going on by people refusing to use pagan names in place of Sabbath & the Lord’s Day……… Only England firmly paganized its language to describe Sabbath now as Satur-Day; it also accepted Sun-Day in place of the Lord’s Day.”
Source: http://www.jesuswordsonly.com/recommendedreading/239-council-of-nicea-of-325-ad.html
So, Constantine changed “Sabbath” to “Saturday”, and “The Lord’s Day” to “Sunday”. The Lord’s Day was the day on which the Christians of the first century A.D. gathered, and was the day after the Jewish Sabbath, the day Jesus was resurrected. The Christians were following the Apostles’ example to meet and worship on the Lord’s Day, to break the bread and drink the wine in a memorial remembrance of His resurrection. Just because Constantine decided to call that day “Sun-day” after his idol beliefs does not change the day on which our Savior rose. It just happens to be that the Lord’s Day is now called Sunday by most people.
We still know from the scriptures that the day of Preparation, what we now call a Friday, was the day before the Sabbath, and was the day Jesus was crucified; and, that he rose on the morning of the 3rd day, which is what we now call Sunday. It is probably better to call it the Lord’s Day as the Christians did so long ago, and as is still used by many today.
Col 2:14-16, “14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; 15 And having spoiled principalities and powers, he made a shew of them openly, triumphing over them in it. 16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:” (KJV)
2Cor 3:3-13, “ 3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart. 4 And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward: 5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God; 6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life. 7 But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away: 8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious? 9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory. 10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth. 11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious. 12 Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech: 13 And not as Moses, which put a veil over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished: 14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.” (KJV)
Keeping the Sabbath was a part of the old law which became obsolete when the old animal sacrificial temple in Jerusalem was destroyed (Heb. 8:13). We are no longer under the old law, but the new covenant of the spirit brought by the living stone, Christ. We remember His death, burial, and resurrection as we worship Him each first day of the week, each Lord’s Day, just as the first century Christians did.
Additional source: http://www.biblicalperspectives.com/books/crucifixion/2.html
Edited Oct 20, 2024. Corrected final paragraph.
Shredding The Veil 
Growing up in the church, we always referred to Sunday as “the Lord’s Day”, as you do in this article. As I’ve studied deeper, I discovered that “the Lord’s Day” is only mentioned in the scriptures by the apostle John in Rev 1:10, nowhere else. And as John specifies by the revelation of Jesus Christ in Rev 1:1-3, all the things that he was going to write about “must soon take place” (vs 1) “because the time is near” (vs 3). With the book of Revelation as context, I now believe that “the Lord’s Day” is another way of saying “the Day of the Lord”, and that phrase is associated with judgment. That is the theme of the book of Revelation. I believe John was in the Spirit on the day of the Lord and was given these visions to show what was soon to take place, including God’s judgment (Rev 11:18). I now refer to Sunday as the day of worship, trying to use bible terms instead of the tradition in which I was raised.
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Thank you. I believe you are correct. Hold over habits still sneak in to my writing here and there. But, the early Christians of the 2nd century AD began using the phrase “the Lord’s day” to refer to the 1st day of the week for their assembling together. So, today most ppl use the term for the day they come together to study God’s word and fellowship. The early Christians did not use the name “Sunday” as they used the Jewish numbers of the days of the week, and called it the first day of the week. Some history here: https://www.thegospelcoalition.org/reviews/a-brief-history-of-sunday/
It will take some time for ppl to become more familiar with all of the nuances of that 1st century judgment language, so it’s a growing process.
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Another interesting post!
You explain that Constantine wanted to use the name of Jesus to refer to his sun god. You state that he exalted the nature of Jesus from the Son of Man with Divinity abiding into an independent mind God the Son of a father who is also God like his god Sol Invictus (a paraphrase of your quote). Are you saying that Scripture does not teach that Jesus is God? That the idea of the Trinity is not Biblical?
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No, I am not saying that scripture is denying Jesus’s divinity. Constantine used the teachings of the gospel of Christ to cover his Baal worship of the pagan sun god Sol Invictus. He thought that by giving his pagan idol the name of Christ that he could hide behind a fake Christianity and continue the pagan practices and celebrations that he enjoyed. Just as they used Christianity as a cover over the Saturnalia feasts and called it Christmas. They were hiding behind a false front. It has fooled people for many centuries.
As for the teaching of the Trinity as presented by the Catholic church, I do not believe that concept to be scriptural. Christ prayed that his disciples would be “one” just as He was of one with the Father (John 17:11ff). Not one entity, or one corporal being, but of the same mind, agreeing in the principles Christ had taught them which were from the Father. YHVH, the Father, the Almighty, the Ancient of Days, and then His son, Christ (Yeshua) who did the will of His Father. Two beings of the same mind.
Stephen saw Christ standing at the right hand of the Father (Acts 7:56), two separate beings. Christ asked why the young man called Him good (Matt. 19:17), and answered that there was only one who was good, and that is our Father in heaven. Christ was doing the will of the Father. He was always doing the will of the Father (Luke 2:49; John 5:30) just as He was when He went to John to be immersed (baptized) to be obedient in all things. As He was faithful in all things, God rewarded Him with the rule of all the nations. He delivered that rule back up to the Father after the judgment of Jerusalem, and the destruction of the temple, at which time He continued to reign with the Father. I see a co-reign of the Kingdom by Father and Son, both divine with chain of command as the Most High Father is over all, with delegation to His Son, who is our High Priest and our King.
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Thank you for your reply, Gina.
I’m left with a couple of thoughts/questions which may be common for those of us with “traditional” doctrinal views.
Jesus calls Himself the Son of God in John 11:4 and throughout the gospels. So, I interpret that to mean that the terms Son of Man and Son of God are synonymous.
But in John 10:30 Jesus says “I and the Father are one” which was interpreted by the Jewish Council as Jesus claiming to be God. This infuriated them to the point of wanting to put Jesus to death on the spot. Jesus does not try to correct them by clarifying, as some assert that this verse is saying, that He and the Father are one in purpose. Jesus says,”He who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9).
In the well known verse, John 1:1 Jesus, (the Word) is declared to BE GOD. The Word (God) was made flesh, which is Jesus. If A=B and B=C then A=C?
In Hebrews 1, the Apostle Paul is telling us that God the Father spoke to us through His son (vs2). He then tells us how God relates to and describes His son; “He is the first-born begotten of the Father”, and “let all the messengers of God bow before him”…then in verse 8 “and unto the Son: ‘ Thy throne, O God, [is] to the age of the age;…’ “. Unless I am misunderstanding this sounds like God calling Jesus God.
Then I think back to Isaiah 45 where God cannot be clearer in asserting that He alone is God and there is no other. vs.22 among many others.
Am I missing something? It seems to me that Scripture supports that God is three in one when you consider that it is the Holy Spirit that indwells us. Maybe our vocabulary is inadequate to truly capture the nature of God?
How would you interpret this? I’m interested to know. Your posts are challenging my beliefs which is causing me to dig deeper into Gods’s Word. Thank you for that!
I look forward to your reply. God bless you!
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Carol, there are volumes written on this subject trying to define in human terms the spiritual relationships and beings of God The Father, and His Son, and the Holy Spirit. “In the beginning” both in Gen. 1 and John 1 – Hebrew poetry and very much Hebrew spirituality. The gospel of John concerns the characteristics of Christ and His spiritual nature being made flesh, whereas the the other gospels mostly relate events and people surrounding Christ in narrative form. I do not think that mankind can grasp this “oneness” as our limited knowledge and experience is only of this realm of fleshly beings. However, I like several commentaries on John 1:1-3 and will offer a some few excerpts here.
Ellicot’s:
‘With God.—These words express the co-existence, but at the same time the distinction of person. They imply relation with, intercourse with. (Comp. the “in the bosom of the Father” of John 1:18, and “Let us make man” of Genesis 1:26.) “Throned face to face with God,” “the gaze ever directed towards God,” have been given as paraphrases, and the full sense cannot be expressed in fewer words. The “with” represents “motion towards.” The Being whose existence is asserted in the “was” is regarded as distinct, but not alone, as ever going forth in communion with God. …
Was God.—This is the completion of the graduated statement. It maintains the distinction of person, but at the same time asserts the oneness of essence.”
Gill’s Exposition:
“…: but this phrase denotes the existence of the word with the Father, his relation and nearness to him, his equality with him, and particularly the distinction of his person from him, as well as his eternal being with him; for he was always with him, and is, and ever will be; he was with him in the council and covenant of grace, and in the creation of the universe, and is with him in the providential government of the world; he was with him as the word and Son of God in heaven, whilst he as man, was here on earth; and he is now with him, and ever will be: and as John here speaks of the word, as a distinct person from God the Father, so do the Targums, or Chaldee paraphrases; Psalm 110:1 “the Lord said to my Lord”, is rendered, “the Lord said to his word”; where he is manifestly distinguished from Jehovah, that speaks to him; and in Hosea 1:7 the Lord promises to “have mercy on the house of Judah”, and “save them by the Lord their God”. The Targum is, “I will redeem them by the word of the Lord their God”; where the word of the Lord, who is spoken of as a Redeemer and Saviour, is distinguished from the Lord, who promises to save by him. This distinction of Jehovah and his word, may be observed in multitudes of places, in the Chaldee paraphrases, and in the writings of Philo the Jew; and this phrase, of “the word” being “with God”, is in the Targums expressed by, , “the word from before the Lord”, or “which is before the Lord”: being always in his presence, and the angel of it; so Onkelos paraphrases Genesis 31:22 “and the word from before the Lord, came to Laban”, &c. and Exodus 20:19 thus, “and let not the word from before the Lord speak with us, lest we die”; for so it is read in the King of Spain’s Bible; and wisdom, which is the same with the word of God, is said to be by him, or with him, in Proverbs 8:1 agreeably to which John here speaks. John makes use of the word God, rather than Father, because the word is commonly called the word of God, and because of what follows, ”
Cambridge Bible for Schools & Colleges:
“with God] i.e. with the Father. ‘With’ = apud, or the French chez: it expresses the distinct Personality of the Logos. We might render ‘face to face with God,’ or ‘at home with God.’ So, ‘His sisters, are they not all with us?’ Matthew 13:56; comp. Mark 6:3; Mark 9:19; Mark 14:49; 1 Corinthians 16:7; Galatians 1:18; 1 Thessalonians 3:4; Philemon 1:13; 1 John 1:2.
the Word was God] i.e. the Word partook of the Divine Nature, not was identical with the Divine Person. The verse may be thus paraphrased, ‘the Logos existed from all eternity, distinct from the Father, and equal to the Father.’ Comp. ‘neither confounding the Persons nor dividing the Substance.’ ”
You can read more of these commentaries at https://biblehub.com/commentaries/john/1-1.htm.
There are certainly more scholarly resources on this topic, but I am also put in mind of the oneness of the husband and wife relationship where God sees the two joined into one, answerable as one. In the flesh, two separate beings, but of one before the Father. In court of law a wife cannot testify against her husband because it would be seen as forcing a man to testify against himself, the wife being a part of the joined oneness nature.
Being from the business world, an accountant by training, reading contracts daily, I tend to gravitate toward understanding job functions, delegating tasks and authoritative chain of command in a corporate structure. So, it strikes me as God the Father joined in oneness with His Son to accomplish the task of reconciling mankind to the Father. I am not claiming a perfect understanding of the spiritual nature of The Father and Son and the Holy Spirit. But it seems to me that both the Son and the Spirit are doing the will of the Father, and have specific job functions, all of them equally important and essential to the whole.
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P.S. In the near future, I will be editing and re-working this post as I have come to believe that the crucifixion was actually on a Thursday – the 4th day of the week. The resurrection being on the 1st day of the week following the sabbaths of both the Passover and the weekly 7th day observance. But the 4th day of the week lines up perfectly with the 3 days & nights of the sign of Jonah, the three days Christ was “lost” in Jerusalem when Mary & Joseph searched for Him as young boy. The Catholic teaching of a Friday crucifixion does not survive close scrutiny.
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I have pondered and gone over this many times. I read an article written in in 1919 by E E Franke saying if Christ was crucified in A.D. 31, the 14th day of Nisan which was Wed. March 28th, was the day of his crucifixion, so he was raised on the Sabbath. 3 days and 3 nights later. The preparation day was for the High Day Sabbath, the Feast of Unleavened bread.
I also read “the first day of the week” is not written in the Bible but the word for Sabbath was sometimes translated that way. John 20:1 says, now, on “one of the sabbaths” same with I Corinthians 16:2, “one of the sabbaths”.
Wasn’t the sabbath rest put into effect back in Genesis, way before the Law? God rested on the 7th day and blessed it and sanctified it. If so, it would not have been part of the law that was done away with on the cross. We still obey the commandments, just not the 4th one. That doesn’t make sense to me.
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Ppl argue over this unnecessarily. The Sabbath, the 7th day was a holy day, a convocation to YHVH, a day of rest to remember what YHVH had done in creating the world and rescuing Israel from Egypt. A day of rest! See. Ex. 16:23-29; 31:14-16; 35:2-3; Deu. 5:12-15, etc.) God worked a miracle to resurrect His son, the first born of the dead, the first fruits of the dead (1 Cor. 15:20, 23). Every part of God’s word connects. So we go back to Lev. 23:11 where God set forth the commandment for the feast of first fruits. ” then he hath waved the sheaf before Jehovah for your acceptance; on the morrow of the sabbath doth the priest wave it.” On the morrow of the Sabbath, which was the day after the Sabbath.
Look at Matt. 28:1 carefully. The YLT says it better, where as the other English translations deduce it… after the Sabbath, at the earliest dawn light. “And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths,…” There is a lot of information in the commentaries on this verse that is helpful to understand the Jewish cultural terminology (https://biblehub.com/commentaries/matthew/28-1.htm) that the “eve of the sabbaths” was the end of the sabbath, which was not the beginning of the Sabbath and indicated “after.” Young’s “toward the first of the sabbaths” indicates the first week counting the next 7 sabbaths they would mark to get to the Feast of Weeks which was held on the 50th day (Pentecost) “after” the 7th Sabbath day from Passover. So, toward the the first of the Sabbaths was the beginning of the first week to Pentecost.
The earliest of the dawn light was in Jewish time the middle of the next day as they counted the evening from about 6 pm to the next evening at 6 pm as one day which is according God’s way of thinking in Gen. 1. “there is an evening and a morning – day one.” The evening when the stars came out, and the morning when dawn broke. So at the earliest dawn light (Matt. 28) was what we consider to be the first day of the week. God did not name the days (the pagans named them after their pagan gods), but He numbered the days. The first day of the week, the 7th day of the week, etc.
So, whereas the original texts do not explicitly say “Sunday” or the first day of the week, the translators have correctly deduced that Christ came forth from the grave on the first day of the week. Now count back. The evening of Wed., Mar. 28th (if man’s counting can be relied upon) to the evening of Thurs., Mar. 29th completed day 1 in the grave. The next evening on Fri. Mar. 30th was day 2 in the grave, and the third evening on Sat. Mar. 31st was day 3 in the grave. Jesus arose sometime between the evening stars on what we would call Sat. Mar. 31st and Sun., Apr. 1st before the dawn. The first day of the week after the Sabbath, as the evening was the first part of the next day in Jewish counting.
Further, all of the feast days were also called sabbaths, considered as High Sabbaths by the Jews. It causes us some confusion until we know that all of them including the Sabbath was pointing to Christ. All of the books God has preserved for us that are necessary to our salvation from Gen. to Rev. all point to Christ. Christ fulfilled, or completed all of the Law, all of the feast days, all of the temple sacrifices, everything. So, our sabbath rest is in Christ (Heb 4). Everyday to us is a sabbath rest, as we are to live for YHVH every day, and worship Him every day, not just on one day of the week. (Acts 2:46; 17:11; 20:7; 1 Cor. 16:2; Rom. 14:5-6; Col. 2:16, etc.)
Some ppl like to assemble and worship God on Saturday (the 7th day), some on the 1st day, others have additional assemblies on the evening 4th day, and still others have multiple meetings throughout the week. But, every day now is a day we are to live for God, and no day is anymore special than any other day. I like to rest on Saturdays to be able to regain strength to be able to work throughout the next week. But, I study God’s word every day, praying morning and night or any time I need to talk to God. My communion with God is not just on the 7th day,.
I hope this helps. Thank you for reading and do please ask anything. I will try to answer.
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Thank you so much. Your answer was very helpful. I would appreciate your prayers as my small group is going to “study” Revelation. I say “study” because it will just be reading from a study guide and probably agreeing with the author, who I am sorry to say is David Jeramiah. Most people in my church believe the Scofield rapture, 7 year tribulation theory. I have been studying this for the last few years and God has continued to reveal truth to me through your site and several others. I feel led to present this other way of looking at it and need courage and assertiveness. Our retired pastor is part of this group so…. it will be difficult. I don’t expect to change anyone’s mind, that is for God to do, but I am hoping it will cause some to consider another interpretation of Revelation and study more on their own. Ann
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Ann, I wish for you a sincerely open-minded and good heart brethren for your study. However, pls be cautious. We have been told by one congregation that we could continue attending as long as we remained silent in church; that we could no longer participate in one bible class by another congregation; & a 3rd told us we had to leave unless we repented and asked forgiveness. Those who have been content in the millennial dispensation teaching for years, sitting on those church pews for years believe it sincerely. Their 1st reaction is of fear, b/c if as we tell them that they are being misled in this one area, then they think that their belief in Christ is in danger as well. If you wish to approach this I would use Christ’s method of asking questions and tiptoeing around it. Ie: Well if every eye that would see Him included those who pierced Him then wasn’t Jesus telling those of the 1st cent. AD that He was coming back soon to them (Rev. 1:7)? Or, Since Jesus told His disciples that some of them would still be living when He returned to them (Matt. 16:28), then wasn’t He telling His disciples that His return would be in their generation? Or question them on His statements to His disciples about “this generation shall not pass” being their generation (Matt. 24) or that they should not finish going through all of the cities b4 He returrned (Matt. 10). Best to just get a foot in the door and test the waters. Their eyes have to open a little bit b4 you hit them with the whole thing. It can be done, indeed it has been done, but those who are receptive must truly be of a good heart. It should be made clear to them that their faith in Christ is more firm, more assured when they believe everything Jesus said, and that they can know to count on His word fully. I will pray for you, and may God bless you greatly.
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We have started the study and there are a few who are open. We are in Chapter 4 now and talking about the Holy Spirit being in heaven and I know later they will say because of the rapture since he references 2Thessalonians 2:6-8. I read the whole chapter and I can see how one would believe Paul is talking about a future antichrist. I would appreciate your take on 2Thessalonians2. Thank you, Ann
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That is very hopeful, Ann. Pls see my post The Gathering of The Elect from July 2017. You might also read The Resurrection In Three Parts from Sept 2017 which my Dad wrote. Remember Heb 9:27, ” and as it is laid up to men once to die, and after this — judgment,” There is no “the” in the original Greek. Every one of us has to die bodily before we face God. This has been the same for every generation except for Enoch and Elijah, as Enoch walked with God and God took him. I address the translation of both Enoch & Elijah in my post Frequent Mistakes Part VII from June 2018. You can also bring in the post Testing The Spirits – Part III: Daniel’s Lot from Feb. 2022 to bolster all of it. May God bless you in your study.
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Thank you. I have read the three part resurrection article and it answered several questions I have had about death. Before reading that, I was under the impression that we all sleep after death, not go to heaven right away which makes sense since the Bible uses the word sleep in many places. I thought I would sleep after death until Jesus comes again, but the article implied those who die after the first resurrection will immediately be resurrected after death? So the second resurrection is not a big group resurrection but individual as we die?
In Hebrews 9:28 when it says, “so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.” so those who await Him are the ones that were resurrected?
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Ann, Paul was writing to those of the 1st cent. AD who were asking about their loved ones who had already died. They wanted to know about their resurrection. So, those still living when Jesus returned in 70 AD and survived that battle would still have to live out their lives until their natural death. Jesus took all of the dead out of the grave after the temple was destroyed (Matt. 25:31ff) setting those righteous to His right, & the rebellious disobedient on His left. The wicked disobedient were cast out into outer darkness (Matt. 22:13). Ever since that general resurrection Christ prophesied in Matt. 25, all those who are faithful unto death are resurrected, changed in the twinkling of an eye and gathered into heaven at their bodily death (Rev. 14:13). Pls also read Hades Is No More.
The only ones who could have a 2nd appearance of Christ were those who had already witnessed His 1st appearance; those of the 1st century AD. No other generation could have a 2nd appearance as no other generation saw Him a first time. His 2nd appearance in that generation was for judgment, with the kingdom, and with release from the grave (Hades). I explain these points in both the The Gathering of the Elect and Testing The Spirits Part III for Daniel’s Lot. I think if you read those carefully you will see that the way most ppl gloss over 2 Thess. 2:4 they miss the fact that Paul was writing about the “man of sin” in the present tense – that is the present time of the 1st century AD. That means that Paul was telling them that the man of sin was living and active in their generation. It takes great concentration to keep the present and future tenses in their time frame of that generation. Does that help?
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Gina, We are closing out our “study” on Revelation and it has been very disappointing. The one person who seemed open to a different interpretation has been in AZ for the winter. I brought up the fall of Jerusalem and the temple many times and the leader just says yes there is another view then moves on to David Jeremiah’s next point.
Last night we were talking about the millennial reign of Christ on earth and I asked the leader if this was supposed to be Christ’s kingdom because His kingdom is in heaven. He couldn’t really answer. He said maybe God is just allowing people a second chance to come to Christ. The Pastor brought up Isaiah 65:17-24 saying that is describing the earthly millennial reign. What is Isaiah talking about there?
From what I can see, the Bible doesn’t say Christ comes back to earth but someone mentioned Christ standing on the Mount of Olives. I totally believe Revelation is all about the fall of Jerusalem and the end of the old covenant but it is hard making the point like you said it would be.
I am also confused about the binding of Satan and his later release in Revelation 20. How does that relate to the fall of Jerusalem? Was there some sort of pause in the Roman seige?
Many in the group just say we will know the truth when we get to heaven so why argue about the different interpretations? I think it is important because the Evangelical Zionists are running the country like supporting Israel at any cost is the thing to do and war doesn’t matter to them because “we aren’t going to be there”. That is very frightening to me though I know God is in control and is allowing this for a reason.
Looking forward to your response. Ann
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I am glad to hear from you. So, the elders relented and allowed you to continue to attend that congregation?
You are absolutely correct that Zionism is a political affiliation, & not a part of Judaism. Zionism is the root of all of the wars and murders that have been committed in the ME since 1948, and is the cover for the existence of the newly created “state” of Israel for the Rothschild’s control of all ME resources. Every “Christian” who associates and supports Zionism is complicit in those wars and murders. There desperately needs to be more education of the American Christian on the roots of Zionism and the connection the the US Congress that forces all members of the US House & Senate to swear an oath to uphold the “State” of Israel over even that of the united states of America. You might want to print out the article here: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/376235241_Zionism_is_Intrinsically_Evil – and pass it around to your study group.
The idea that there is more than one interpretation of God’s word is a type of blind arrogance that is too often accepted by students of the Bible that should know better. Scripture interprets scripture, and only God interprets His word (Dan. 2:28-29, 2 Pet. 1:20). Any idea or belief about God’s word that violates any other scripture of God’s word is at best a misunderstanding, and more probably a deliberate deception. We cannot assign any idea to God’s word that we want to believe. And, it appears that many of your study group are persuaded to let truth be trampled beneath easy, soft whispers that tickle their ears. It takes a lot of strength and diligence to seek out God’s every word so that we can absolutely know what His word means. The study of His word is not for the faint hearted, and the majority opinion is too often that of the wide path that leads to destruction. That the leader of your study stops the discussion by saying there is another view means that he is not confident enough in God’s word to go the distance.
There are two millennial statements in Rev. 20: the binding the adversary (Hebrew word satan), and the reign of the martyrs with Christ. No where does the scripture say that the reign with Christ would be on earth! Christ had ascended to the Father & was sitting at the Father’s right hand. Martyrs by definition were killed for their belief in Christ, whether beheaded, crucified, or thrown to the lions. They were dead. So where would they reign with Christ, but in heaven above. Pls read my post The Signs of Rev. Part VI from March 2017.
The “thousand years” of Rev. 20 is not literal. It is a symbolic code that means “God’s appointed time.” It is the complete and full number 10 raised to the 3rd power. Whenever it is used in prophesy it just means the amount of time that God determined was enough time. Pls read my post A Day is AS a Thousand Years from Mar. 2019.
So the adversary – the Sanhedrin or Nero or both – was bound for a period of time. Which adversary? Many believe this binding was the same as he who held back the four winds, and was probably Claudius who threw the Jews out of Rome because of the constant riots over “Chrestus”. How long did Claudius reign before Nero took over? 41 to 54 AD? So the symbolic thousand years, the completed & appointed time of the binding of the adversary was only 13 years in real time. You can read The God of This Age from July 2016.
The appointed time – the thousand years – of the reign of the martyrs with Christ was a direct answer to Christ’s prayers in the garden that His disciples be where He was also so they could witness His glory (John 17:24). When did Christ come in His glory? At the destruction of Jerusalem and that old temple. So where were the martyrs to witness His coming? In heaven with Christ and our Father. Those that appeared from the grave after Jesus’ resurrection were His disciples. I am persuaded that God answered Jesus’ prayer, and those who appeared to many in the city (Jerusalem) were further proof of the truth of the resurrection, & that they were gathered into heaven when Christ ascended as well. I am persuaded that all of Christ’s disciples were gathered into heaven after His ascension as they died and were never in Hades. Please read Hades Is No More from Aug 2022. So, how long was the real time that the martyrs reigned with Christ to be able to witness HIs glory? AD 31 – AD 70, or about 40 years in real time.
Every morning that we wake up is a second chance to come to Christ. But, once the carnal body dies, the time allowed to choose is past. Rev. 14:13, ” …every one who dies in the Lord…” So, only those who have remained faithful unto death die in the Lord. There is no second chance after the death of the physical body.
We’d better know the truth before we get to heaven or we may not be there. Those who say things like that, and those who are willing to compromise God’s word to avoid confrontation are too willing to call Jesus a liar. They do not realize they are denying Christ. And, that, to me seems like the definition of blasphemy. I just don’t see how God forgives that.
I believe that your questions in this study group have to have made some of them think a little more about the truth of God’s word, and the first audience perspective. You have done well to make at least a dent in their thinking. So, congratulations. And, please don’t ever give up.
PS – Isa. 65:17 “a new heavens and new earth” the new covenant, the new creation of the gospel of Christ. Explained in my posts The Signs of Rev. Part VIII from April 2017 & The New Jerusalem – The New Heavens and New Earth from Dec. 2022.
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Thank you for your encouragement. It has been hard sitting through this study and realizing most people just read the book and answer the fluffy questions without delving further into God’s word. I will review the references to your post that you gave me.
i would still like your opinion on Isaiah 65:17-25. I know the new heaven and new earth are the New Covenant as the old was passed away when Jerusalem and the temple were destroyed. Is this not literal as my study group believes? Is this referring back to the Garden of Eden when God walked with man and there was no sin? One thing that confuses me it that people are living to an older age but still apparently dieing.
Ann
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No, Isa. 65-17-25 is not literal in the sense of a new physical earth. It is the prophesy of a new creation of the covenant agreement. It goes back to the language in Deu 4:26 and 31:26 where Moses told them that the “heavens and the earth” would witness against them which tied to the Law of the Mosaic covenant. The covenant was God’s creation, a heaven and earth creation for the land He promised them, and the law they were to live by. So, that metaphor “heaven and earth” was the covenant agreement between God and man, between heaven and earth. Therefor, the new haven and new earth was the new covenant between God and man under the gospel of Christ. Pls read the post Heaven and Earth Have Passed Away (Aug 2015), Frequent Mistakes Part V: Roses Are Red, Violets Are Blue… (Mar 2018). The Jews used the phrase “heaven and earth” for the temple where God met with man. It is an Hebraic idiom.
I am not sure what you mean by your last comment – living to an older age and still dying? We all die. This carnal body wears out in this realm. We do not have eternal life until we are resurrected and the mortal puts on immortality (1 Cor. 15:51ff). It is given unto man once to die (Heb. 9:27). That is when each one of us will face our judgment, either that we are covered by the blood of Christ, and the judgment passes over us, or if not covered by the blood of Christ then to be cast out into outer darkness.
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Thank you. So this Thursday is the end of this study, Revelation 21 and 22. This study was very disappointing as it rushed through Revelation with practically no reference to Old Testament or New Testament prophecy. The New Jerusalem is the Bride of Christ, the church, correct? The author talks about it as a literal place descending to earth. I certainly do not believe that. Is it just a picture of the heavenly kingdom full of believers? I will probably have some more questions as I finish this study. Thank you so much for taking the time to answer them and clarify things for me. Ann
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Yes, Ann. The New Jerusalem is the spiritual city of the kingdom of God, the church of Christ, the bride of Christ. All believers who are covered by the blood of Christ are in that spiritual body, in that spiritual kingdom. It came without observation and is within us (Luke 17:20-21). Anyone that teaches that the New Jerusalem is a physical earthly city has been misled by false teaching. All who are not covered by the blood of Christ, the liars, murderers, thieves, adulterers, etc are even now outside that spiritual city (Rev. 21:8, 27). The description given in Rev. 21 of that beautiful city are all symbolic and have meanings from the OT. The word “tabernacle” in Rev. 21:3 is calling to mind the last great pilgrimage feast on the 15th of Tishri, AD 70 in which all the saved now tabernacle with God in that spiritual kingdom, in that spiritual city of God. So there is no need of a nation state contrived by man, nor of a land bounded city named Jerusalem for God’s covenant relationship with those who are covered by the blood of Christ. God was done with that city when He used the Romans to destroy in AD 70.
“21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. 22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews. 23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.” (John 4:21-23, KJV)
So there is no more need for an earthly temple, nor an earthly city, nor an earthly nation for those who follow after Christ Yeshua.
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What is the meaning of the binding of Satan. And then release fir a short time in Revelation 20? I read a commentary saying Satan is bound now by the New Covenant and will be released just before Christ’s second coming which can’t be right if Christ has already come. Looking at the state of the world right now, it seems Satan is reeking havock everywhere.
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Binding something or someone is to constrain them from acting against others, or from causing harm. The adversary – the Sanhedrin council, and Caesar Nero – were about to persecute the saints, killing them for their belief in Jesus Christ. Preventing those adversaries from acting against the newly born church of Christ, the newly converted saints to The Way gave them time to mature in the word, to cement their faith so that they could endure unto death. Remember Jesus’ prophesy of the tribulation that would come upon them before the Roman Jewish war of AD 66-70, and during the war itself (Matt. 24-25). The tribulation is also pictured with great metaphors and symbolism in Rev. 12.
The word “satan” is not a name, but an adjective. It is a function or job description. It describes anyone who stands against another, especially those who stand against YHVH or His saints. Highly recommend the posts here for Testing the Spirits – Parts VI (a), (b), (c) from Aug 2022, and The Trouble With the Devil – Parts I, II from Feb. 2024. The evil that we deal with today is caused by greedy men who kill and steal and lie for their own personal gain, and their actions have consequences. These evil ppl will bear the responsibility for their sins, and are all adversaries against YHVH. Evil comes from within the heart of man (Gen. 6:5; Mark 7:21). Also read The Signs of Revelation Part V: The Animal Symbols of the Battle, at pt. #3 about the Dragon. It is always mankind that has stood against YHVH.
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Thank you. One of the questions in the study we are doing is “The Bible relates that when the prophet Daniel receives his vision, the angel instructs him to seal the book until the time of the end. (Daniel 12:4). Why do you think John was told not to seal the words of this prophetic vision?”
My answer is because it says “the time is at hand”. So was Daniel’s sealed because it was 490 years until the time of the end? Wouldn’t this also be proof that it is all happening in the first century because why wouldn’t John’s vision be sealed since the author is saying it is happening over 2000 years from the time written and Daniel’s vision is only 490 years. Just wondering if I could mention this as more proof Revelation happened in the 1st century, beside the obvious which says “the time is at hand.”
Ann
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Exactly. Daniel was told to seal up the vision because it was long time away in their future “end days” of the Mosaic covenant. Jesus told John not to seal up the vision, but to send it to the “messengers” (angels) of the seven churches because their end days was at hand. It was not in some future generation 2,000 or more years after their temple would be destroyed. That is why John was told that he would prophesy again. And, since Jesus told His disciples that John would live to see Jesus’ coming in His glory, and since John reportedly lived to about AD 96 or so, then Jesus’ coming was in John’s lifetime – which ties to the destruction of Jerusalem and their temple in AD 70.
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Gina, I am glad I am finally getting it. It is hard to change your mindset after believing one thing and discovering it was wrong. The study of Revelation had been fascinating to me and it really started several years ago for me.
I would appreciate your take on this from the David Jeremiah study. This sentence was in the introduction and has been bothering me. I brought it up on the first day of the study and no one could really address it. Referring to the question in Rev 6:10, How long oh Lord, Dr. Jeremiah says “This question has been the cry of believers for more than two millennia. How long will godly people have to suffer while evil prevails? …The answer God provides to the apostle John through the book of Revelation reveals both His sovereignty and His grace: until the plan of salvation has been accomplished.” This last part is what bothers me; do you think he is saying the plan of salvation has not been accomplished yet!?
Then at the end of the study he writes, “As we come to the final chapters of Revelation, we find that the global purposes of God have been fulfilled. The rebellion of angels and the humans they inspired is finished and they have been consigned to the lake of fire. Jesus Christ, the King of Kings and Lord of Lords, is on His throne and has begun His eternal reign. That is true, but it happened 2000 years ago, right? So it seems to me he is saying God is not reigning on His throne yet.
I want to bring this up tomorrow. We know Jesus is sitting at the right hand of God and reigning eternally now so Revelation has to be talking about the first century.
Thank you for your time. It is nice to have someone to run my thoughts by.
Ann
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Ann, it is very hard to change our mindset when we all grew up being told it was in our future, when really it was in the future of those living during Jesus’ earthly ministry, and during the preaching of the Apostles in the first century AD. Even now, I sometimes find myself slipping back into old teachings that do not apply to us. So, it takes great concentration to keep asking who was speaking, who was being spoken to, and when were they speaking.
Rev. 6:9… who is under the altar? ” And when he opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of those slain because of the word of God, and because of the testimony that they held,” Those under the altar, slain because of the word of God were those persecuted and martyred, killed for their belief in Christ under the Sanhedrin Jewish reign under Roman rule in the 1st century AD. They were already dead. Is there an altar today in Jerusalem where sacrifices are made?
Rev. 6:11… they were to rest “a little while” till their other brethren who were about to be killed “even as they”. Meaning persecuted and killed for their belief in Christ. So, that little while was looking ahead to the destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman army in AD 70. 2,000 + years is not a little while.
Christians have been asking “how long” for centuries about other trying times that we all endure b/c of evil wicked people who murder us, steal from us, lie to us. But, that is what we contend with b/c many of our fellow men and women in this earth realm are not Christians. That is always going to be a problem. But we are not waiting on Christ to take vengeance upon those who killed him, & the saints of the 1st century AD.
Christ began His reign at the right hand of the Father when He ascended into heaven (Acts 1:9; Heb. 1:1-3; Rev. 5:6ff). His judgment is happening every hour of every day as each one of us sheds off this carnal body and faces Him.
God’s plan of salvation was accomplished through the death, burial, & resurrection of Christ; and fully established at the destruction of that old earthly temple in Jerusalem in AD 70. His eternal kingdom has been tabernacling with man ever since the 1st century AD. His “global” purpose was fulfilled at the end of that battle as represented in Revelation which was completed in AD70.
Ppl just keep misunderstanding the future tense verbs as still being applicable to us. They are removing the future tense verbs that applied to those living before the Roman Jewish war of AD 66- 70, and lifting them out of time and place into some future generation beyond the reader’s current time frame. That is anachronistic. Then, they falsely conclude that Jesus still has to finish something, and that He is not yet reigning. You might print off the “Perspective” post at the menu on this blog and hand it to them.
Jesus finished it all. He completed it all when that old city Jerusalem and that old temple was destroyed. Hebrews , written approx. AD 65-66, 4 – 5 years before the battle, told them that it was about to vanish away (Heb. 8:13). “About to” does not indicate 2,000+ years later. Yes, it is all finished. Revelation was completed in AD 70, and Christ has been reigning at the right hand of our Father in heaven ever since then. His kingdom is here with us now.
Blessings to you, and best wishes for your tomorrow.
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Well, I was able to say what I had planned and they politely listened. The leader said he hasn’t studied Revelation as much as I have but he isn’t there yet. So basically he still doesn’t believe the prophesy ended in 70 AD. One lady kept reading notes from her study Bible which was written by Dr. Jeremiah and others said they have never even heard of what I was saying. I tried to explain about Scofield and how most Evangelicals aren’t taught what I was saying but there are others out there who do. Hopefully God will use this to get them probing deeper but somehow I doubt it. Thank you for listening.
I don’t know what we will be studying next but we don’t usually dive very deep which is disappointing.
Ann
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You did very well, Ann. It has to start with opening their mind to the possibilities. Some will think about it for awhile b4 a light bulb turns on. Others will never get it. But, God’s word reaches the fruitful heart. We open our mouths, say His words, and let Him do the work.
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Gina, Thank you. In Philippians 1:6 and 1:10, Paul talks about things the Philippians were to do ” until the day of Christ”. Does that mean do them until we die and see Christ. Some say the day of Christ is the rapture or when Christ returns which I know is not the case. Ann
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Who was the letter written to? The saints at Philippi (chap. 1 vs 1). “…until the day of Jesus Christ.” (KJV) Same as the day of the Lord, and same as the coming of the Lord. Young’s has it as “to a day of Jesus Christ,” which is better as any coming of the Lord is A coming in judgment, as HE comes in judgment, or pours out His judgment any time He needs to. The translators of the KJV had that false bias, that taught and learned futurist end-of-THE-world coming idea, and so used “the” as if there was and is only one coming of the Lord.
We, today, are reading their mail. The letter was written to the Philippians about 60-62 AD while Paul was imprisoned in Rome. They were waiting for that very great 2nd appearance promised of Him (Heb. 9:28) whose coming in glory (Matt. 24:30; Mark 13:26; Luke 21:27) was going to release them from the tribulation of the persecution they were subjected to by the Sanhedrin and the Romans. Paul was encouraging them to continue in their love of Christ, to continue to grow in knowledge. and faith while they were waiting. Some of them might have died during the time of that persecution before Jesus’ return in AD 70 and might be martyrs for their belief. Some would live to see that destruction of the judgment Jesus brought against Jerusalem and that temple. Those would continue to live their lives until their bodily death, and still would continue to grow in knowledge and faith in the Lord.
Their circumstances are not ours. We take these encouragements as examples of how we are to conduct ourselves until we have finished our race (2 Tim. 4:7). We endure the hardships, the suffering caused by sinful men and women until our race is done. There is no rapture., and that word is not in the original texts. It was invented for the futurists’ false teaching by twisting and misusing 1 Thess. 4:15. The Thessalonians were worried about their loved ones who had already died before Christ’s return, and Paul was assuring them that as Christ died and was resurrected then so would those loved ones who had died in the Lord would also be resurrected at His coming.
I like Youngs, and the GNV’s translation of 1 Thess. 4:15 better. “…shall not prevent them which are asleep.” The entire point was that Jesus was not going to leave their loved ones in the grave. (Matt. 25:31ff) But every man and woman must face our physical bodily death (Heb. 9:27) as flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom (1 Cor. 15:50). So, those who remained to see the coming of Christ in AD 70 and lived through that war and that battle still would continue to live on until their bodily death when they would be resurrected and changed in the twinkling of an eye and gathered into heaven. That is the promise of Rev. 14:13 which we are blessed with.
We are not waiting on that promised coming of the Lord. We are to live our lives, raise our children in the knowledge of His word, being kind and loving to our neighbors, helping those in need where and when we can, speaking out against evil where and when we can with the full armor of God – the gospel of Christ, and teaching others of the hope that is within us where and when we can. That is how we run our race and live our lives. His plan of salvation was completed in Christ Jesus, and is in full force and effect over all the world.
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Thank you. I thought the futurist view was relatively new with Scofield but is that just the Zionist part that is new? So you are saying that Christ can come in judgment any time he needs to, not just once in 70 AD? That makes sense, of course He can do what ever He wants. I feel like He may be ready to judge the US for their support of Israel and all the killing of innocent people as well as the killing of babies by abortion, and mutilation of children…..so much evil going on in the world.
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The Zionists picked up the Jews rebellion in the mid-1800’s for their political agenda of their Greater Israel Project in order to control the resources of the Middle East. The Rothschilds began purchasing lands throughout Palestine, and own most of the modern city of Jerusalem. But, the idea of a “future” coming of Christ was a Jewish Rabbinical dogma created after the destruction of the temple in AD 70 b/c they refused to believe that Jesus was the promised Messiah. So the rabbis began promoting the idea that they were still waiting for their Messiah to still come. In fact they began meeting in Tzipori (Sepphoris) which was a city in Galilee about 3.7 mi NNW of Nazareth to reestablish their oral traditions, and where they began erasing words from their Hebrew scriptures that identified Jesus as the Messiah, and altering the time lines of Gen. 5 & Gen. 11. They completed their re-writings of the OT scriptures by about 160 AD, which became the basis of the Masoretic Texts (MT) of 1008 AD, which are now the basis of most English translations of the OT. We have about 95% of the original Hebrew OT scriptures, but he Rabbis scrubbed some of it so they could counter the Christians’ claims for Jesus as the Messiah.
Their arguments against Christ have been on-going since the destruction of the temple in AD 70, and their false claims are the basis of all futurist arguments for a future 2nd coming of Christ for many evangelical Christian denominations. If those deceived and misguided Christians only knew… (Bruce Gore’s fuller historical coverage of how the book of Revelation has been taught over the past 1900 years here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=rTqxCTu2OjM&list=PLYFBLkHop2anlJ9wrDXdhugr95AJ3dMKA Just be wary of Bruce’s Calvanist slant, and that he is a partial preterist.)
Christ is KING, and PRIEST. He has all authority given to Him for judgment. He is judging now, and has been judging every one and every nation since He was seated at the right hand of the Father at His ascension in AD 31. Yes, He can “come” in judgment, set motions in action for judgment, pour out destruction judgment events whenever and wherever judgment is needed. He is in charge.
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I am enjoying Bruce Gores lectures. I don’t really know much about church history. He lives here in Spokane. My daughter went to Whitworth University but she never took any theology classes.
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Glad to have sent him your way. He is an enjoyable speaker with much truth to offer.
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What boggles my mind is how so many Christians, filled with the Holy Spirit, who pray before reading Scripture, asking for discernment and truth, come up with so many varying doctrines and interpretations of Scripture. They all seem so sure of their belief and defend it with more Scripture. God certainly can prevent false doctrine from getting out but why doesn’t he? I know we don’t know the mind of God but this is so perplexing to me.
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What does it mean to be “filled with the Holy Spirit” according to scripture? Please read my posts, Testing The Spirits – Part V (a), (b), (c) from Jul 2022. All of the examples from the NT scriptures shows that the ppl filled with the Holy Spirit were SPEAKING the words given to them by the Holy Spirit. Clue – Where do we get those words today?
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I have listened to Bruce Gore’s series on Revelation. It helped me better understand the preterist view. In the final episodes, he refuted the total preterist view with 7 objections. From your teachings, I can see how most of them can be explained by the full preterist view but several have me wondering.
In I Corinthians11:26, it says, “For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until He comes.” Gore says since most churches still practice communion, we are saying the Lord is still to come. What is your view on communion; should we still be practicing it?
Ann
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Ann, this one verse cannot negate all of the other scriptures that we have shown that prove the Coming of the Lord (1 Cor. 1:7; James 5:7-8; 2 Pet. 1:16) , His coming in glory (Matt. 24:30), His coming in his kingdom (Matt. 16:28), His days of vengeance (Luke 21:22) was during that generation (Matt. 23:36; 24:34) in which He spoke to His disciples prophesying the destruction of Jerusalem. The word translated as “until” in 1 Cor. 11:26 is G2193, “heos” (https://biblehub.com/greek/2193.htm), & it is a conjunction, a preposition, or an adverb of continuance, often translated as even, unto, until, up to, hither to, while, as far as, and long. While it can indicate a terminus point, it does not always mean that something ceases at that exact time.
Compare it to Matt. 10:23 in the KJV where “…Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.” is translated in the RSV as “…before the Son of man comes.” When Jesus said in Matt. 11:13, ” For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John;” does that mean that the words of the prophets and the law ceased when John came? Or, shall we conclude from John 21:23 when Jesus told Peter that the apostle John ““If it is my will that he remain until I come, what is that to you?” that John died when Jesus came in His judgment against Jerusalem?
1 Cor. 11:24-25 repeats Jesus’ commands to His disciples to remember His body and His blood, His death on the cross, His sacrifice for our sins whenever they would eat of the bread and drink of the wine. Does that mean that His sacrifice is not to be remembered by any other generation of disciples than those of that 1st century AD generation? Does that mean that His body & His blood no longer carries any meaning beyond that generation?
Whenever we have trouble understanding a scripture it is often b/c we are reading into the text a meaning that cannot be supported in light of the rest of scripture. It would be better to understand 1 Cor. 11:26 not as a termination point, but a continual practice they were not to cease while they were waiting for His coming in judgment. Today, we still do this in remembrance of Him, of His sacrifice for us.
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